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JANE ELLEN HARRISON ANCIENT ART AND RITUAL
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referring to Jesus, if this word was correctly translated as lord in these
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verses, what would these verses say about the nature of Christ?
Jesus Christ was quoting from Deuteronomy 6:16, which reads in the Darby
translation as follows: "Ye shall not tempt Jehovah your God, as ye tempted
him in Massah." Of course, modern translations have removed the Divine
name and have substituted the generic "LORD" instead of using God's
distinctive personal name. But, it is unthinkable that Jesus would have not
used his Father's personal name when he quoted directly from the Hebrew
text where it was written. So, the NWT uses the Divine name where it seems
appropriate.
The questioner apparently does not even understand the text in question.
Jesus was not saying that the Devil was putting God to the test. The Devil
was trying to tempt Jesus into tempting God. The Devil knew Jesus was not
God. He said to him: "If you are a son of God, hurl yourself down from
here." The Devil went on to quote the Psalm that says God would send his
angels to rescue him. So, Jesus was saying that he was under the Law that
forbids the Jews from putting Jehovah to the test. Rather than supporting the
lie that Jesus is God, the text in fact proves that Jesus was a God-fearing
man who did not want to displease his God Jehovah.
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91. Jn 5:23 says, in order that all may honor the Son JUST AS they honor the
Father& If Jesus is not God, why does the Bible require that all men should
honor the Son equally with the Father?
The simple answer is: Because it is Jehovah's Will that all creation honor his
Son.
In the preceding verses, Jesus said that he could not do a single thing on his
own, but he did what he did in imitation of his Father. That means that Jesus
has limitations, in that he is bound by his love for Jehovah to always do his
Father's Will and not his own. In the 20th verse, Jesus said that the Father
has affection for the Son and shows him all the things he does. He went on
to say that the Father would show him even greater things in the future.
Again, this shows that Jesus is dependent upon God to enlighten him.
It should be clear, to reasoning minds at least, that Jehovah is the teacher
and Jesus is the pupil. Jesus is a unique son of God in that Jehovah "shows
him all the things he himself does." That's why Jesus could be an exact
representative of God.
Besides being blasphemous, the Trinity makes a mockery out of the special
father/son relationship that exists between Jehovah and Jesus. According to
the Bible Jehovah loves Jesus and Jesus loves Jehovah. According to the
Trinity, God merely loves himself and showers himself with all sorts of
blessings. What utter nonsense!
92. If Jesus and Jehovah are not one God, then why, according to the NWT, is
Jehovah the name which brings salvation (Acts 2:21), but Acts 4:10-12 says
that ONLY the name of Jesus brings salvation ( & for there is NOT ANOTHER
NAME under heaven that has been given among men by which we must get
saved. )?
Jehovah has not given any other name other than Jesus. The name Jesus
literally means "Jehovah is salvation." So, Jesus' own name really just
magnifies God's name. Jesus said that "God loved the world so much that
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he gave his only-begotten Son." In other words, Jehovah made the
provision for salvation by sacrificing Jesus. That is how Jehovah gave us the
name of Jesus.
93. If the soul is the body, why does John make a distinction between the
prospering of Gaius body because of good health and the prospering of his
soul in 3Jn 2, and why does Paul distinguish between a person and their soul in
Acts 20:10 by saying, Stop raising a clamor, for his soul is IN him ?
Jehovah's Witnesses do not teach that the body is the soul. The soul is the
person. Also, soul is used in the Bible in reference to the life that a person
has as a soul. So, when Paul said his soul was in him, he meant that the
person was alive.
94. The WTS teaches that Jesus is the first and greatest creation of God. If
Jesus was Michael the Archangel before he became a man, then why does Dan
10:13 refer to Michael as ONE of the foremost princes implying that he was
equal to other angels? If Christ was Michael the Archangel before the
incarnation, then became Jesus, then changed back into Michael the Archangel
after his death, why does Heb 13:8 say that, Jesus Christ is the SAME
yesterday and today, and forever. ? How could Christ be the same if he
changed from being Michael, into being Jesus, then back into being Michael
again?
This is an artificial dilemma. To illustrate, the questioner ought to rephrase
the question to read: How could Jesus be the same if he changed from being
God-the-God into God-the-man and then back to God-the-God again,
because that is the suggestion that is being made by such repetitive
questions that are meant to somehow "prove" that Jesus is God
The Bible says that Christ existed in God's form, which according to Jesus,
God is a spirit. Jesus emptied himself of his heavenly glory and spirit form
when he became a man. Before Christ returned to heaven, Jesus asked
Jehovah to give him back the glory that he previously had. We will leave the
burden on the questioner to reconcile how Jesus could be the same
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yesterday and today when he obviously went through some radical changes
in nature.
As for the question of why Michael is called one of the foremost princes:
Jesus is the Son of Jehovah. Jehovah has many other heavenly sons. A
prince is a son of a king. Jesus is merely one of many princely sons of
Jehovah. Michael could rightly be called one of the foremost princes before
he came to earth because it was simply not God's time then to reveal and
distinguish his special son and prince.
95. Rom 10:12 says , & for there is the same Lord (Jesus vs 9) over all, who is
rich to all those CALLING UPON him. If Jesus is not to be prayed to, then
why does Paul say that they will be rich who call upon him ? Similarly, Paul
says in 1Cor 1:2, & together with all who everywhere are CALLING UPON
the name of our Lord, Jesus Christ, their Lord and ours and in 2Tim 2:22 he
says, & but pursue righteousness, faith, love, peace, along with those who
CALL UPON THE LORD out of a clean heart. If Christians should not pray
to Jesus, then why did the early Christians call upon Jesus? How can a
person call upon Jesus without praying to him?
The answer lies in answering the following question: Who did Jesus pray to?
The Trinitarian can only offer up the nonsensical answer that Jesus prayed to
himself. The Bible, though, says that Jesus called upon Jehovah. The real
problem has to do with the insidious way in which the worship of God has
been subtly subverted and replaced with the worship of saints, angels, the
mother of Jesus and Jesus himself.
Here is the central issue: Christians are to follow the life and example of
Jesus Christ. The question is: Who did Jesus worship? If we can answer that
correctly, then we are privy to what Paul called a great sacred secret
concerning Godly devotion. But, was Christ devoted to himself? Did he
worship himself? Was he his own God? If that is the case then following his
example of Godly devotion, we would become self-absorbed narcissists.
Right? It is appropriate to ask these types of questions because the Trinity
doctrine has made an absolute mockery of the religion that Jesus practiced.
Yes, that's right, Jesus had a religion. He worshipped the One whom he
specifically called "my God."
What was Jesus' religion?
We really shouldn't be in the dark as to what religion Jesus practiced. He
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was a Jew. And as a faithful Jew he worshipped Jehovah God. Jesus said as
much to the Samaritan women at the well, when he told her in the 4th chapter
of John: "You worship what you do not know; we worship what we
know, because salvation originates with the Jews." When Jesus used [ Pobierz całość w formacie PDF ]
